why didn't the mongols invade western europe

The Mongol army of 130,000 would be divided; 20,000 would invade Poland under Baidar and Kadan (two half-cousins of Batu) to ensure the flanks would be safe, while the remainder divided into three armies to conquer Hungary – this all occurring in the middle of winter, when the Europeans would be unprepared and the Mongols would be at home. Please read the rules before participating, as we remove all comments which break the rules. But in the thicker wooded area of western Europe (before it was cut and farmed like today) on the thin roads and small fields, in the close quarters the heavy armor knights would have slaughtered them. Why didn't the Mongols invade Western Europe? By signing up, you'll get thousands of step-by-step solutions to your homework questions. How does this compare to China? The expansionist Chinggisid ideology had already welded together a confederatio… The Mongol Empire as a Eurasian Network Use HWK 534-539 and underline the answers to the following questions. Tickets. It was an unparalleled human catastrophe. How badly would the Mongols have raped western Europe if they hadn't had to go back to choose a new ... - "/his/ - History & Humanities" is 4chan's board for discussing and debating history. Also, the only way to win is to take those castles and fortresses, you cant avoid them see: https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1l68g8/why_siege_a_castle_during_medieval_warfare/? The Mongols made a wise decision not to come back and invade Western Europe. The Mongols continued to invade Central Europe with three armies. Would the terrain of western Europe still be as good for mounted warfare? When Mongol leaders died, ... or else the Mongols would invade Europe. The site may not work properly if you don't, If you do not update your browser, we suggest you visit, Press J to jump to the feed. Mongol invasions of Anatolia occurred at various times, starting with the campaign of 1241–1243 that culminated in the Battle of Köse Dağ.Real power over Anatolia was exercised by the Mongols after the Seljuks surrendered in 1243 until the fall of the Ilkhanate in 1335. It could have been done of course, and it might well have been had Ogedai lived longer. Because there was no clear rule about succession, it was open. It has been estimated that approximately 11% of the world's population was killed either during or immediately after the Turco-Mongol invasions. Why did the Mongol Empire stop at Europe? (except for smaller raids) If it would have been so easy, why did they never bother? They supported far smaller populations than their agricultural counterparts. In my opinion, its nonsens for the following simple reason: The failed second invasion of 1285, were they failed to take any major castle or citadel this combined with bad weather (snow) and lack of food lead to a clear defeat, and they would never try again. The Pope of course ... had enough loot from sacking pre modern russia and parts of eastern europe then there would be no need to go further west. What then were the only two areas to remain free of Mongol assaults? The Mongols decemated Hungary, Poland and Bulgaria though for some reason they never really had an interest in these lands although Chingis Khan and his sons often spoke of the great sea to the west (Atlantic Ocean) though they never went towards their plan of invading furthers? Sorry for perhaps breaking a subreddit rule here, but here goes. I'm thinking maybe europeans would fight on home soil and could have stood against them? Lord of Hosts When Batu Khan and his 150,000 horsemen set off on their great ride into the West in 1235, they clearly had annexation in their mind. Expansion into western Europe would have had all sorts of problems. So the Mongols had the ability to continue west into Europe, but didn't. What was the importance of Marco Polo? But how true is this? Ogodei Khan, who was leading the attack on Europe, died. I'm on my phone so I don't have a source right now, but can get one later. What stopped them from raiding further? How far West in Europe did the Mongols raid? ps: I know that they succesfull besieged many chinese citys and fortresses but that doesnt mean they can be succesfull against ''european-styled fortresses''. 2) Logistics—The Mongol hordes required a lot of grass, so sustained campaigns were difficult. Please read the rules before participating, as we remove all comments which break the rules. Beyond Hungary lay much rougher terrain that was ill suited for them. Or is only a combination of effort / reward, lots of sieges and thus a long campaigns vs very little gain? And that all their other strengths are also of not much use (good in open battles and on steppes etc). The Mongols didn't adhere to "the eldest son inherits". Source: Genghis Khan: Life, Death and Resurrection by John Man. 3) Social Structure—The Mongols simply did not have any effective way to command and control a vast empire, and any projection would just be an adventure without real support. Wiki User Answered . Ogodei Khan, who was leading the attack on Europe, died. Hulegu, a grandson of Chingy When was Bagdad captured? What factors halted the Mongolian invasion of Europe? Why didn't the Mongols invade Western Europe? This is however, speculative. Mongol invasion of Europe Part of Mongol invasions and conquests Mongol invasion of Europe 1236-1242 Date Mid- through late-13th century Location Eastern and Central Europe, the Caucasus, and the Balkans Result Numerous European political entities destroyed, subjugated, or raided and forced to pay tribute. If one reads about the 1241 Mongol invasion of ''Europe'', a common narrative is that: Europe was spared because the Khan died, and that the Mongols would have easy bulldozed all of it, because they also took China and the Middle East. you'll find more responses in these threads. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Mongol_invasion_of_Hungary, Can i thus conclude the Mongols were simply not good enough at siege warfare? The second reason is that the goals of the Mongols had been achieved. 2: Small fractured states means no capitals to take, you need to overpower every single ''nation'', beating down X wont mean Y will give up without a fight. Logically, when he withdrew to the Mongol heartland, he took his army with him. Looks like you're using new Reddit on an old browser. Which of the following was a result of the great plague of the fourteenth century? By using our Services or clicking I agree, you agree to our use of cookies. The Mongolian empire was a universalising enterprise. Do you know of any books on the subject that are written with passion, rather than a dry academic approach? Planning to invade Italy,Austria, and Germany in the winter of 1241-42,the Mongol army was on the march when news came from the Mongol capital, Karakorom, of the death of Ogatai, son and successor of Genghis Khan.The law of Genghis Khan clearly stated Alternatively, do you (or anyone else reading this) know how historically accurate Conn Igguldens "Conqueror" series is? all the jabber about what an organizational genius GK was flies in the face of the whole transfer of power apparatus he set up that made the “Empire” a house of cards. The reasons were because the generals of the Golden Horde returned to Mongolia to settle the succession, and that they had come as far as was planned. But a new study in the journal Scientific Reports looked at a different kind of record to solve the mystery of the horde’s abrupt exit from central Europe: tree rings.. Why didn't the Mongols invade Western Europe? they didn't have the political/logistical support for two generations of fort-by-fort subdual like that of the Mongols in (rich, nearby) China. Mongol raids into Palestine took place towards the end of the Crusades, following the temporarily successful Mongol invasions of Syria, primarily in 1260 and 1300.Following each of these invasions, there existed a period of a few months during which the Mongols were able to launch raids southward into Palestine, reaching as far as Gaza. Ogedei died so Batu had to withdraw as prep for struggle for succession. the answer was Genghis Khan's stupid system of inheritance for political control. They also innvaded north into polan and germany and south into the balkan. They responded by build more Western style castle and the Mongols did very poorly when they tried to invade again. How did the Mongols facilitate the exchange of ideas and techniques? Answer. New posts New threadmarks Search forums. A bit of background before I explain why they didn't go further. 0 1 2. India and Western Europe Which Mongol leader led the conquests in the Muslim territories? The Mongols were quite effective in siege warfare in China, and Chinese fortifications were, at that time, the most impressive in the world. Had Ogedei not died in 1241 it is possible that the Mongols would have continued into Europe, but that is only speculation. The second reason is debatable though, as Subedei and Batu both were competent commanders who may have pushed forward. There is really no point to focus on europe from a east steppe conquerers perspective, one would first have to defeat many steppe people and they did not yield as much loot and are hard to defeat. Answers must be in-depth and comprehensive, or they will be removed. Why didn’t the Mongols invade Western Europe? Looks like you're using new Reddit on an old browser. Open new ticket Watched. But the Mongols didn't break those forts with their own native cavalry. Home. It's worth remembering that people in the past couldn't see into the future, and they generally didn't have all the information we now have about their situations; things that … Why did the Mongols invade russia and Europe? Which of the following statements best characterizes Mongol rule of Persia? The fact is he himself was nowhere near conquering europe. And after 1285, the amount and strength of castles only grew and sieges became ever more prevelant (like the sieges of Calais and Orleans or in the Middle East during the Crusades). they effectice tried twice, the first time they lost steam and they pulled back, the second time they simply failed. Even if he didn't want to be the Great Khan, he led the Golden Horde with Subedei and was extremely influential within the Mongol nation for this reason. Battle of Ain Jalut. The Mongols in Europe, I suggest, just didn't have the political/logistical support for two generations of fort-by-fort subdual like that of the Mongols in (rich, nearby) China. There's a huge difference between saying an unprepared Europe wouldn't have been able to stand up to the might of the united Mongol Empire in 1241 and a Europe in 1285 (and later) with 40+ years to prepare being able to stand up to the Golden Horde who had to watch all its borders and fight fellow Khanates. I'm curious about Ghenghis Khan and the Mongols, but I will not have time nor willpower enough to read through accurate but soulless books. At the time of his death both Xi Xia and the Jin had not been finished of completly. This meant that Batu, son of Genghis' first son Jochi, was now a contender for Great Khan. I disagree that they only wanted hungary. The mongol scouts had allready pushed far beyond hungary as well. They would have been slaughtered entirely in the Alps. The site may not work properly if you don't, If you do not update your browser, we suggest you visit, Press J to jump to the feed. So my question is: Doesnt the failure of the 1285 invasion show that the mongols never had a realistic chance to succesfull raid and invade europe like they did in China? Europe was saved from, at the very least, a nasty ravage by the Mongols not by military action, but by pure chance. Reason they would have imo failed would be: (i shortened a bit, please correct if wrong) 1: Not many large pitched battles, european armies often avoided those. 3: Stubbornness of defenders, 100 years war, 80 years war, 30 years war, Europeans in general were willing to fight for years regardless of the destruction and casulaties. why is that? Two days later the armies regrouped and crushed the Hungarian army at the Battle of Mohi, killing up to a quarter of the population and destroying as much as half of the habitable dwellings. Answer to: Why did the Mongols invade Europe? The reasons were because the generals of the Golden Horde returned to Mongolia to settle the succession, and that they had come as far as was planned. If one reads about the 1241 Mongol invasion of ''Europe'', a common narrative is that: Europe was spared because the Khan died, and that the Mongols would have easy bulldozed all of it, because they also took China and the Middle East. Another thing to consider is that the mongols clearly set out to conquere everything, that was there idiology. China. This withdrew the main force from Europe and slowed the progression of the horde. Press question mark to learn the rest of the keyboard shortcuts. death of the khagan Ogedei caused Batu to leave w/ armies to attend to secession What then were the only two areas to remain free of Mongol assaults? 1258 They employed local Chinese and imported Muslim troops and experts to handle the siege warfare. Europe and India. To add to the first part a bit. Forums. Related Facts. Menu. This is why the idea that Ogodai could have conquered all the way to the French coast is just stupid. Ogodei Khan, who was leading the attack on Europe, died. The Mongols, seemingly coming from nowhere and quickly gaining a reputation as the ‘horsemen of the Devil’, enjoyed victory after victory, and eventually got as far west as the city of Wroclaw in Poland. So its just the Mongols lost strength due to infighting, this combined with the long distance to europe, and the bad ''effort / reward'' simply made europe not worth the effort? Didn't the Mongols plan to construct a navy to reach the Japanese archiepelago and wasn't historical consensus that hadn't a complete freak ... Island did have a good point about the flat terrain and the mongols proved themselves against Western armies before. Europe became aware of a much wider world than they had known about. The Portal for Public History Which of the following statements is true of pastoral societies in general? Same many sieges lasted months or even years, even if the outcome was certain. There were also a lot more of them than in 1241 and the castles were designed to hold out for a long time without additional food or water. In 1219, Genghis sent a group of half-a-thousand Muslims to the Empire, only for them to be intercepted in a city named Otrar by its governor, Inalchuq, an esteemed aide of the Khwarezmian Emperor, Muhammad II. Secondly, 'why didn't X do Y' questions are sometimes phrased in an ahistorical way. The Mongol conquests of the 13th century resulted in widespread destruction that has been widely noted in scholarly literature. But, the process of increasing economic efficiency came to a standstill when the Mongols came to share their Western border with the Khwarezmian Empire. One army defeated the fragmented Poland at the Battle of Legnica in 1241. 2017-10-25 04:37:44 2017-10-25 04:37:44. Why didn't the Mongols invade Western Europe? Ogedai himself was the third son of Genghis, and his older brothers were both dead, leaving behind sons of their own. From my understanding when a new leader was chosen the Mongols held a kurultai, where all the important officials in the empire were expected to attend and vote on a new leader. Because the Seljuk Sultan rebelled several times, in 1255, the Mongols swept through central and eastern Anatolia. Why didn't Mongol invade the holy city, ... Mongol's southward expansion was permanently stopped by Mamluk Sultanate in an area which is now part of West Bank. This due to lack of open battles and steppe, combined with the fact that the only way to win is lay siege and the historical proof that mongols clearly failed in their sieges in 1285. Cookies help us deliver our Services. The other major goal in Europe had been Poland, however this was to prevent reinforcements coming South to help Bela defend Hungary. Which of the following was a result of European diplomatic exchanges with the Mongols in the thirteenth century? Which Mongol leader led the conquests in the Muslim territories? I suggest that the Mongols were "weak" in Hungary in 1285 in the same way that the Muslims were "weak" in France in 732: these forces were far from their home bases, and going after relatively poor, low-plunder countries. When Ogedei died, it was expected that the leaders meet to chose a new Great Khan. The Mongol army conquered hundreds of cities and villages and also killed millions of men, women and children. Is there documentation to that effect or is it speculative? ... Why didn't Hitler invade all European countries in WWII? I have read somewere that the mongol generals estimated 18 years to conquer all of europe and I would argue after there destruction of the hungarian and polish/teutonic army they were well ahead of the plan, considerung nobody in there path was ready for war. Asked by Wiki User. Ghengis Khan's scouting forces made some exploratory missions to the West mostly in Eastern Europe, but he decided to send his main forces East at the end of his career to punish the people of the Western Xia province, who reneged on a promise to provide him with troops in his war with the Khwarezmian Empire. So the Mongols had the ability to continue west into Europe, but didn't. Top Answer. European Knights could outnumber Mongol forces (if they were united in an alliance) and their armour was superior too. Can you be more specific? Why didn't the Mongols invade Western Europe? The Mongol Empire would have a difficult time managing the entirety of Europe as a series of Rus-like vassals though, there are just too many realms far from the steppe and it would make the Holy Roman Empire look simple to manage. He had send scouting forces into south russia and other mongol armys were scouting around in the direction of middle east and they learned avout india in that time. They mightn't have planned on settling there, but it was good land that suited them. Ogedai Khan's death left the position of Great Khan open and without a guaranteed successor. Historians could only guess why until now, since written accounts from the point of view of Mongol military leaders are sparse. And even so, defeating all of China's fortresses and river navies took them over 60 years. Answers must be in-depth and comprehensive, or they will be removed. The Portal for Public History To add one more point, all these western lands would be given to batu and why would he stop and give the army back befor he had nothing left to conquere. Why didn’t the Mongols invade Western Europe? Why did the Mongols choose not to continue to invade Europe? Europe became aware of a much wider world than they had known about. Thats a different narrative as ''The mongols would have easy conquered all those small kingdoms'', ps: sadly many subjects suffer under 'fanboyism' like how a katana is totally amazing, or how german tanks were 3 steps ahead of russian tanks (both nonsens), New comments cannot be posted and votes cannot be cast, More posts from the AskHistorians community. Batu. Which of the following was a result of European diplomatic exchanges with the Mongols in the thirteenth century? Chinese fortifications were, at that time, the most impressive in the world. Other have answered questions about the mongols not Genghis khan himself. Mongols (7) Related Question Categories. Tengri, the Inner Asian Great Blue Sky, had granted Batu’s grandfather, the lord of the earth Chinggis Khan, the right to rule over all who lived in felt tents. The second reason is debatable though, as Subedei and Batu both were competent commanders who may have pushed forward. hi! The Mongol invasions of Russia and Eastern Europe occurred first with a brief sortie in 1223 CE and then again in a much larger campaign between 1237 CE and 1242 CE. Some good books on the formation of the Mongol Empire are "Genghis Khan: Life, Death, and Resurrection" by John Man and "Genghis Khan and the Making of the Modern World" by Jack Weatherford. Press question mark to learn the rest of the keyboard shortcuts, https://www.reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/1l68g8/why_siege_a_castle_during_medieval_warfare/. What made Hungary able to beat the Mongols was … The Mongol conquest of China was a series of major military efforts by the Mongol Empire to invade China proper.It spanned six decades in the 13th century and involved the defeat of the Jin dynasty, Western Xia, the Dali Kingdom, the Southern Song, and the Eastern Xia.The Mongol Empire under Genghis Khan started the conquest with small-scale raids into Western Xia in 1205 and 1207. New comments cannot be posted and votes cannot be cast, More posts from the AskHistorians community. There are two main reasons that I know of: the death of Ogedai Khan in December 1241 is the first, and the second is that the Mongol goals had been completed - they only wanted Hungary. The castles in for example Hungary were effective because they were made of stone and had high walls, in contrast to most of the Hungarian fortifications in 1241. Hungary had been the target as it was known for it's grasslands and pastures - perfect for the Mongols and their herds.

Alcafe Coffee Beans, Princess Story Books Online, Houses With In Laws Suites For Sale In Ri, Royal Oak Keswick, Cardio Only Results, Journal For The Scientific Study Of Religion, Causation And Remoteness In Negligence, Dawn Simply Clean 56 Oz, 19 Crimes Snoop Cali Red Stores,